Professor Perry asks if there is a gender bias in the pricing of women's vs men's clothing...
""The chart above shows the CPI for Men's Apparel (data here) and Women's Apparel (data here) from January 1978 to April 2010. Men's clothing has appreciated by 1.06% per year since 1978, which is more than double the annual rate of appreciation for women's clothing (0.52%). Compared to 1978, men today are paying 40% more on average for their clothing, and women are paying only 20% more. According to the selective concern among the "gender activists" about gender imbalances, any gender outcomes that favor men can be traced to overt or "unexamined" sex discrimination.""There is often more to graphs like this one than meets the eye. When exactly did the price of clothing start to decrease significantly? The points are pretty clear---women's clothing in 1994 and men's in 2000. Hmmm...what year was NAFTA ratified? When did China emerge, in a global fashion, as the world's manufacturing floor, first in clothing/shoes/accessories and now in higher value goods? I am curious as to the time lag of 6 years before the fall in price of men's clothing. Perhaps Professor Perry has an answer:
Q: What are we then to make of these gender imbalances in favor of women for clothing prices? Is this an outcome of price discrimination because women are more "ruthless" in their shopping habits for clothing, male demand for clothing is more "price insensitive," and therefore men (women) pay higher (lower) prices.
What do you think????
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